CTET exam notes for class 3 English subject

Child Development & Pedagogy (5)

1. According to Piaget, a Grade 3 learner who sorts objects by more than one feature (shape and color) is most likely in which stage?

B) Preoperational

C) Concrete operational

D) Formal operational

Answer: C) Concrete operational

2. Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) is best supported in class by:

B) Repetition without feedback

C) Scaffolding via guided practice

D) Memorization of rules

Answer: C) Scaffolding via guided practice

3. Kohlberg’s conventional level is reflected when a child:

B) Follows rules to gain social approval

C) Acts on universal ethical principles

D) Pursues personal gain above all

Answer: B) Follows rules to gain social approval

4. Inclusive education requires teachers to:

B) Use one common test for all learners

C) Provide reasonable accommodations and UDL strategies

D) Lower learning goals for all learners

Answer: C) Provide reasonable accommodations and UDL strategies

5. A teacher notes frequent spelling errors and asks learners to discuss patterns in their mistakes before revising. This is primarily:

B) Punitive discipline

C) Error analysis with formative feedback

D) High-stakes testing

Answer: C) Error analysis with formative feedback

English Pedagogy (10)

6. For Grade 3, activity-based learning in English is most effective when it:

B) Uses picture reading, role-play, and pair-talk

C) Eliminates reading aloud

D) Avoids games and crafts

Answer: B) Uses picture reading, role-play, and pair-talk

7. To build vocabulary from contexts like toys and games, a teacher should:

B) Use picture glossaries and local contexts

C) Insist on dictionary definitions first

D) Avoid L1 support entirely

Answer: B) Use picture glossaries and local contexts

8. A comprehension task after a short story should first check:

B) Literal recall before inferential questions

C) Only inferential questions

D) Only grammar identification

Answer: B) Literal recall before inferential questions

9. Introducing articles “a/an” meaningfully at Grade 3 is best done by:

B) Noting vowel/consonant sounds in familiar nouns

C) Teaching phonetics only

D) Translating the rule to L1 and ending there

Answer: B) Noting vowel/consonant sounds in familiar nouns

10. Oral language development is strengthened when learners:

B) Engage in “Let us speak” tasks, pair-talk, and recitation

C) Only listen to teacher lectures

D) Take weekly spelling tests only

Answer: B) Engage in “Let us speak” tasks, pair-talk, and recitation

11. A balanced lesson from a poem like “Out in the Garden” should include:

B) Recite, discuss actions/verbs, and simple writing

C) Only grammar drills

D) Only art-craft

Answer: B) Recite, discuss actions/verbs, and simple writing

12. To teach plurals at this level, the best approach is:

B) Contrast -s and -es with familiar nouns and games

C) Only irregular plurals

D) Avoid speaking practice

Answer: B) Contrast -s and -es with familiar nouns and games

13. For early writing development, appropriate tasks include:

B) Guided sentence frames and picture prompts

C) Dictation of long passages

D) Only free writing without support

Answer: B) Guided sentence frames and picture prompts

14. Assessment aligned with competency should:

B) Include ongoing self-assessment checklists

C) Ignore oral performance

D) Grade only handwriting

Answer: B) Include ongoing self-assessment checklists

15. Integrating cross-curricular themes in English (e.g., shapes, numbers) is:

B) Encouraged to deepen language through contexts

C) Only for Math classes

D) Only for advanced classes

Answer: B) Encouraged to deepen language through contexts

NEP 2020 Related (5)

16. NEP 2020 emphasizes Foundational Literacy and Numeracy and recommends:

B) Play-, discovery-, and activity-based learning

C) Eliminating mother tongue use

D) Only summative testing

Answer: B) Play-, discovery-, and activity-based learning

17. In the 5+3+3+4 structure, Grades 3–5 are:

B) Preparatory Stage

C) Middle Stage

D) Secondary Stage

Answer: B) Preparatory Stage

18. NEP-aligned assessments at primary emphasize:

B) Competency-based, formative, and school-based assessments

C) Removing all assessments

D) Only standardized tests

Answer: B) Competency-based, formative, and school-based assessments

19. NEP’s stance on multilingualism in early years includes:

B) Using familiar/home language to support learning

C) English-only policy in all grades

D) Latin-based instruction for rigour

Answer: B) Using familiar/home language to support learning

20. Cross-cutting themes emphasized by NEP/NCF in language textbooks include:

B) Inclusion, gender equality, cultural rootedness

C) Competitive ranking

D) Elimination of ICT

Answer: B) Inclusion, gender equality, cultural rootedness

From Lesson PDFs (10 each)

From (Unit 1 “Colours” and picture reading)

21. In the “Colours” poem, sharing crayons helps children to:

B) Have a full pack together

C) Avoid drawing

D) Keep colours hidden

Answer: B) Have a full pack together

22. A classroom task aligned with “Colours” includes:

B) Only spelling tests

C) Writing dictionary definitions

D) Translation practice only

Answer: A) Reading colour words in mismatched inks for fun

23. The picture-reading activity in Unit 1 asks learners to:

B) Count and discuss events in the picture story

C) Write a long essay

D) Copy answers from a key

Answer: B) Count and discuss events in the picture story

24. Matching animals with their young ones in Unit 1 promotes:

B) Vocabulary building with real-life categories

C) Punishment for errors

D) Only phonics

Answer: B) Vocabulary building with real-life categories

25. The alphabet section encourages noticing:

B) Only uppercase forms

C) Silent reading only

D) Long dictations

Answer: A) Letter repetition patterns in sentences

26. The grid activity with action words asks learners to:

B) Find only nouns

C) Translate into multiple languages

D) Write essays

Answer: A) Find verbs like walk, give, help

27. The “Say aloud” blends like “gr” and “cr” are used to:

B) Develop phonological awareness with examples

C) Teach only grammar

D) Avoid pronunciation practice

Answer: B) Develop phonological awareness with examples

28. The alphabetical ordering task with fruits/colours builds:

B) Ordering skills using first letters

C) Only drawing skills

D) Test-taking speed

Answer: B) Ordering skills using first letters

29. The “word friends” or compound words task supports:

B) Forming meaningful compound words from pairs

C) Avoiding visuals

D) Only L1 practice

Answer: B) Forming meaningful compound words from pairs

30. Teacher notes in this unit recommend:

B) Silent work only

C) Skipping guidance

D) Removing support for new words

Answer: A) Reading aloud slowly and modeling pronunciation

From 102 (Chapter 2 “Badal and Moti”)

31. In “Badal and Moti,” Badal finds:

B) A puppy shivering in the cold

C) A bird in a tree

D) A cat near a shop

Answer: B) A puppy shivering in the cold

32. Badal’s mother agrees to keep the puppy if Badal:

B) Promises to take care of it

C) Trains it to guard the house

D) Builds a kennel first

Answer: B) Promises to take care of it

33. Badal falls into:

B) A deep pit on a muddy lane

C) A river

D) A well

Answer: B) A deep pit on a muddy lane

34. Moti helps find Badal by:

B) Catching Badal’s scent and barking near the pit

C) Digging a tunnel

D) Bringing a flashlight

Answer: B) Catching Badal’s scent and barking near the pit

35. The past tense focus in “Let us learn” highlights words ending with:

B) -ed

C) -s

D) -er

Answer: B) -ed

36. A sequencing activity in listening asks learners to:

B) Translate lines

C) Memorize author facts

D) Write a poem

Answer: A) Number events of the story in order

37. The conversation punctuation activity practices adding:

B) “.” only

C) “?” and “.” appropriately

D) Commas only

Answer: C) “?” and “.” appropriately

38. The “pigeon and ant” picture story develops:

B) Only drawing

C) Only grammar labels

D) Only handwriting

Answer: A) Jumbled sentence ordering and vocabulary use

39. Daily routine talk prompts learners to:

B) Speak about before/during/after school with frames

C) Copy from the board silently

D) Only read aloud

Answer: B) Speak about before/during/after school with frames

40. The matching activity pairs items like:

B) Bat and ball; thread–needle; lock–key

C) Bird–tree only

D) Puppy–kitten

Answer: B) Bat and ball; thread–needle; lock–key

From 103 (Chapter 3 “Best Friends”)

41. The four friends in the story are:

B) Circle, Square, Triangle, Rectangle

C) Sun, moon, star, cloud

D) Line, point, angle, ray

Answer: B) Circle, Square, Triangle, Rectangle

42. The dispute among shapes is resolved by:

B) A star who advises collaboration

C) A child

D) A judge

Answer: B) A star who advises collaboration

43. The moral emphasizes:

B) Working together creates beautiful designs

C) One best shape must win

D) Triangles are superior

Answer: B) Working together creates beautiful designs

44. A key factual detail: a rectangle has:

B) Two long and two short sides

C) Three sides

D) Curved edges

Answer: B) Two long and two short sides

45. The “a/an” practice aligns with:

B) Memorizing lists

C) Avoiding reading

D) Only L1 support

Answer: A) Noticing starting sounds

46. A follow-up speaking task suggests:

B) Silent reading only

C) Only dictation

D) Memorizing spellings

Answer: A) Role-play of characters with actions

47. A learner identifies “circle has no sharp edges.” This is:

B) True according to text

C) Not mentioned

D) Contradicted

Answer: B) True according to text

48. A writing task asks learners to:

B) Translate the story

C) Write a research essay

D) Copy the story

Answer: A) Paste a friend’s picture and write lines with prompts

49. The exploration task encourages:

B) Solving equations

C) Only colouring

D) Only tracing lines

Answer: A) Drawing with the four shapes to create pictures

50. The rhyme “Fun with Words” focuses on:

B) Number counting

C) Only colours

D) Only articles

Answer: A) Action words linked to animals (chirp, jump, bark)

From 104 (Unit 2 Picture Reading, Chapter 4 “Out in the Garden”)

51. The Unit 2 picture reading prompts include:

B) Only colouring

C) Dictation of numbers

D) Silent viewing

Answer: A) Counting people and identifying activities/toys

52. Children in the picture are shown playing:

B) Marbles, hopscotch, spinning tops, kite-flying

C) Only chess

D) Only football

Answer: B) Marbles, hopscotch, spinning tops, kite-flying

53. The poem “Out in the Garden” features repeated phrase:

B) Each fine day

C) Each cold day

D) Each exam day

Answer: B) Each fine day

54. Verbs in the poem include pairs like:

B) Run–skip; jump–sway; slide–swing

C) Eat–sleep

D) Think–plan

Answer: B) Run–skip; jump–sway; slide–swing

55. A language focus in this unit is linking with:

B) And

C) But

D) Because

Answer: B) And

56. A safety reflection asks:

B) How to buy toys online

C) How to tidy desks

D) How to write long essays

Answer: A) What happens if not careful while playing outside

57. A hands-on task teaches making:

B) A paper bag puppet

C) A wooden toy

D) A metal car

Answer: B) A paper bag puppet

58. The identification task asks learners to:

B) List capitals of states

C) Define gravity

D) Memorize months

Answer: A) Name playthings used in the image

59. The old man in the picture is typically:

B) Reading a newspaper

C) Jumping rope

D) Playing marbles

Answer: B) Reading a newspaper

60. A girl in the picture is:

B) Playing hopscotch

C) Selling toys

D) Drawing shapes

Answer: B) Playing hopscotch

From 105 (Chapter 5 “Talking Toys”)

61. The setting of “Talking Toys” is:

B) A local market toy shop

C) A park bench

D) A village fair stall

Answer: B) A local market toy shop

62. The first child in the story chooses:

B) Snakes and Ladders

C) A soft elephant

D) A wooden top

Answer: B) Snakes and Ladders

63. The little boy asks his mother for:

B) A Vande Bharat train toy

C) A kite

D) A cricket bat

Answer: B) A Vande Bharat train toy

64. Later, two girls buy:

B) Marbles and a toy aeroplane

C) Two dolls

D) A train and a kite

Answer: B) Marbles and a toy aeroplane

65. A group of children finally pick:

B) Two trains

C) Only board games

D) Only phones

Answer: A) An elephant, a spinning top, and dancing dolls

66. The picture glossary highlights:

B) Only electronic toys

C) Only sports equipment

D) Book names

Answer: A) Channapatna/Kondapalli toy references and soft toys

67. An adjectives focus pairs words like:

B) Tree–equation

C) Bus–grammar

D) Rule–drawing

Answer: A) Boy–happy, doll–pretty

68. A pluralization activity contrasts adding:

B) -s vs -es with examples like boxes, buses

C) Prefix vs suffix

D) Irregular verbs only

Answer: B) -s vs -es with examples like boxes, buses

69. A listening poem “My Top” centers on:

B) Seasons

C) Animals

D) Food

Answer: A) Colours and the top going round and round

70. A creative writing/drawing task asks learners to:

B) Build a robot

C) Trace a map

D) Write a research report

Answer: A) Draw a bird starting from the letter B

From 106 (Chapter 6 “Paper Boats”)

71. Meena places paper boats:

B) In a stream near a bamboo bridge

C) In a bathtub

D) In a bucket

Answer: B) In a stream near a bamboo bridge

72. The boy initially:

B) Overturns boats for fun

C) Ignores the stream

D) Sells paper

Answer: B) Overturns boats for fun

73. After Meena confronts him, the boy:

B) Asks for help to learn folding boats

C) Argues loudly

D) Calls others

Answer: B) Asks for help to learn folding boats

74. Meena teaches by:

B) Showing steps with coloured paper and re-folding

C) Giving a rulebook

D) Making him read a story

Answer: B) Showing steps with coloured paper and re-folding

75. The story outcome emphasizes:

B) Cooperation and shared enjoyment

C) Breaking toys

D) Hiding materials

Answer: B) Cooperation and shared enjoyment

76. A pronoun lesson highlights replacing nouns with:

B) He or she in sentences

C) They only

D) This/that only

Answer: B) He or she in sentences

77. A prepositions exercise asks learners to choose:

B) On/under/in for object locations

C) Articles

D) Conjunctions

Answer: B) On/under/in for object locations

78. A sequential art task guides:

B) Solving a puzzle

C) Reading silently

D) Memorizing shapes

Answer: A) Drawing a rangoli step-by-step

79. A crossword on toys/games reinforces:

B) Country names

C) Chemical terms

D) Months

Answer: A) Sports vocabulary like bat, swing, top, football

80. The self-assessment page in this unit supports:

B) Reflection on reading, writing, speaking abilities

C) Only attendance

D) Only handwriting

Answer: B) Reflection on reading, writing, speaking abilities

From 1ps (Front matter, NEP/NCF alignment, contents)

81. The textbook “Santoor Class 3” explicitly aligns with:

B) NEP 2020 and NCF-SE 2023

C) CBSE bye-laws

D) State policy only

Answer: B) NEP 2020 and NCF-SE 2023

82. The “About the Book” notes emphasize:

B) Conceptual understanding, critical thinking, creativity

C) Only grammar drilling

D) Only reading aloud

Answer: B) Conceptual understanding, critical thinking, creativity

83. The Preparatory Stage (Grades 3–5) is described as:

B) A bridge continuing play/discovery with gradual formalization

C) Fully exam-focused

D) Only project-based

Answer: B) A bridge continuing play/discovery with gradual formalization

84. The book integrates cross-cutting themes like:

B) Inclusion, multilingualism, gender equality, cultural rootedness

C) Competitive exams

D) Financial literacy

Answer: B) Inclusion, multilingualism, gender equality, cultural rootedness

85. Oral, reading, and writing are developed through:

B) Only silent reading

C) Only dictation

D) Only phonics

Answer: A) Let us recite/think/speak/learn/listen/write/do/explore sections

86. The Unit theming includes:

B) Fun with Friends; Toys and Games; Good Food; The Sky

C) Only literature history

D) Only grammar

Answer: B) Fun with Friends; Toys and Games; Good Food; The Sky

87. Knowledge of India appears via:

B) Cultural references (festivals, indigenous toys, missions like Chandrayaan)

C) Foreign literature only

D) Only maps

Answer: B) Cultural references (festivals, indigenous toys, missions like Chandrayaan)

88. The contents page shows “Paper Boats” placed in:

B) Unit 2 as Chapter 6

C) Unit 3

D) Unit 4

Answer: B) Unit 2 as Chapter 6

89. The book advocates:

B) Using libraries, local objects, DIKSHA resources

C) Avoiding external materials

D) Phone-free classrooms only

Answer: B) Using libraries, local objects, DIKSHA resources

90. The self-assessment emphasis reflects:

B) Student reflection guided by teachers/parents

C) Only peer assessment

D) No assessment

Answer: B) Student reflection guided by teachers/parents

Additional mixed lesson-based HOTS/application (10)

91. After reading “Badal and Moti,” an application task for empathy could be:

B) Discuss caring for animals and plan a class pet-care chart

C) Calculate ages

D) Draw a map

Answer: B) Discuss caring for animals and plan a class pet-care chart

92. Using “Best Friends,” a problem-solving activity is to:

B) Collaborate to design a playground map using all shapes

C) Copy definitions

D) Recite rules

Answer: B) Collaborate to design a playground map using all shapes

93. From “Out in the Garden,” an assessment-as-learning task is:

B) Learners create verb-pairs in a new stanza about their own play

C) Dictation only

D) Translation

Answer: B) Learners create verb-pairs in a new stanza about their own play

94. From “Talking Toys,” an error analysis of plurals focuses on which likely mistake?

B) box → boxes

C) bus → buses

D) brush → brushes

Answer: A) box → boxs

95. From “Paper Boats,” modeling a skill with coloured paper exemplifies:

B) Guided demonstration with stepwise folding

C) Independent practice only

D) Competitive testing

Answer: B) Guided demonstration with stepwise folding

96. From Unit 1 activities, identifying action words in a grid builds:

B) Capital letter usage only

C) Only spelling

D) Only phonics blending

Answer: A) Morphological awareness of verbs in context

97. The “paper bag puppet” task supports language by:

B) Enabling dialogic play and storytelling

C) Only colouring

D) Silent display

Answer: B) Enabling dialogic play and storytelling

98. Using the contents structure, a teacher sequencing lessons across Units 2 and 3 would likely:

B) Move from Toys and Games poems/stories to Good Food texts to build thematic continuity

C) Skip poems

D) Use only Unit 4

Answer: B) Move from Toys and Games poems/stories to Good Food texts to build thematic continuity

99. The “My Top” poem’s colour-circling task develops:

B) Retrieval of colour vocabulary from text

C) Syllable counting

D) Rhyme scheme analysis only

Answer: B) Retrieval of colour vocabulary from text

100. Integrating NEP’s multilingual ethos with these lessons can include:

B) Encouraging learners to name toys/games in both English and home language

C) English-only recitation

D) Removing local references

Answer: B) Encouraging learners to name toys/games in both English and home language

Child Development & Pedagogy (5)

1. According to Piaget, a Grade 3 learner who classifies foods into edible/not edible and also by taste (sweet/salty) is most likely operating in which stage?

B) Preoperational

C) Concrete operational

D) Formal operational

Answer: C) Concrete operational

2. Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) is best supported when a teacher models folding steps for a paper craft and then gradually releases responsibility.

B) Scaffolding through demonstration and guided practice

C) Timed independent tests

D) Whole-class lecture only

Answer: B) Scaffolding through demonstration and guided practice106.pdf

3. Kohlberg’s conventional morality is reflected when a child follows playground rules to be seen as a good friend by peers.

B) Interpersonal accord and conformity

C) Universal ethical principles

D) Instrumental relativist orientation

Answer: B) Interpersonal accord and conformity

4. Inclusive education in primary English lessons is best demonstrated by offering picture-word supports, peer help, and tactile activities (e.g., sorting fruits/toys) so all can participate.

B) Tracking by ability into separate rooms

C) Universal Design for Learning with multiple means of engagement

D) Eliminating oral tasks

Answer: C) Universal Design for Learning with multiple means of engagement

5. When a teacher collects common plural mistakes like “boxs” and plans a short mini-lesson contrasting -s and -es with targeted practice, this is primarily:

B) High-stakes grading

C) Formative error analysis and feedback

D) Behaviour management

Answer: C) Formative error analysis and feedback

English Pedagogy (10)

6. For oral language development at Grade 3, which combination aligns best with textbook structures such as “Let us recite/speak/listen”?

B) Choral recitation, pair-talk, and listening-sequencing tasks

C) Only grammar drills

D) Only independent reading

Answer: B) Choral recitation, pair-talk, and listening-sequencing tasks

7. Introducing antonyms (e.g., heavy–light) meaningfully is best done by using concrete examples like fruits and classroom objects before abstract lists.

B) Using manipulatives and realia for contrast

C) Translation-only drills

D) Only worksheets

Answer: B) Using manipulatives and realia for contrast

8. A balanced reading lesson after a short narrative should progress from literal recall to inferential and evaluative prompts, then short writing.

B) Literal recall only

C) Literal → inferential → brief writing response

D) Grammar parsing only

Answer: C) Literal → inferential → brief writing response

9. Teaching articles “a/an” effectively at this level should emphasize sound-based decisions with familiar nouns, supported by visual prompts.

B) Sound-based noticing with examples and pictures

C) Avoid pictures

D) Dictation-only

Answer: B) Sound-based noticing with examples and pictures

10. Vocabulary building around themes (e.g., toys, sky, food) is strengthened by picture glossaries, word hunts, and labeling tasks connected to local contexts.

B) Picture-word matching and thematic grids

C) Latin roots first

D) Spelling tests only

Answer: B) Picture-word matching and thematic grids

11. Integrating phonics/blends (sp, st, sk) with meaning is best achieved by reading a sky-themed poem, circling real “sky” words, and then producing short sentences.

B) Themed identification plus sentence production

C) Only rhymes

D) Only dictation

Answer: B) Themed identification plus sentence production

12. For process writing development, sequencing jumbled steps (e.g., making salad or craft) followed by students drafting in order is appropriate.

B) Dictation of long passages

C) Sequencing visuals or slips, then write

D) Copying definition of sequencing

Answer: C) Sequencing visuals or slips, then write

13. A multimodal lesson that includes choral recitation, movement (TPR), and craft (e.g., wind chimes or puppets) primarily supports which pedagogy?

B) Activity-based and experiential learning

C) Marks-focused practice

D) Translation-heavy instruction

Answer: B) Activity-based and experiential learning

14. Assessment aligned to competencies in primary English emphasizes which practice?

B) Ongoing self-assessment with teacher/parent guidance

C) Surprise tests weekly

D) Oral skills ignored

Answer: B) Ongoing self-assessment with teacher/parent guidance106.pdf

15. To nurture creativity and HOTS using stories/poems, an effective move is to have students extend the poem with a new stanza set in their local environment.

B) Extend poem with own verb/action pairs

C) Translate line by line

D) Identify rhymes only

Answer: B) Extend poem with own verb/action pairs

NEP 2020 Related (5)

16. NEP 2020’s Preparatory Stage (Grades 3–5) advocates continuity of play-, discovery-, and activity-based learning with gradual formalization.

B) Lecture-only pedagogy

C) Play and discovery with more formal structures

D) Removal of textbooks

Answer: C) Play and discovery with more formal structures

17. Foundational Literacy and Numeracy under NEP is best advanced in language classes by using local contexts, oral interaction, picture reading, and craft.

B) Local context and multimodal tasks

C) Eliminate oral practice

D) Only grammar parsing

Answer: B) Local context and multimodal tasks

18. NEP-consistent assessment in primary emphasizes classroom-based, competency-focused, formative approaches alongside self-assessment.

B) Project grades only

C) Competency-based formative assessment and self-reflection

D) Marks for handwriting only

Answer: C) Competency-based formative assessment and self-reflection

19. NEP encourages multilingualism by allowing home language use to support comprehension and expression in early stages.

B) Ban local languages

C) Strategic home language support for learning

D) Latin-based reinforcement

Answer: C) Strategic home language support for learning

20. Cross-cutting themes like inclusion, gender equality, and knowledge of India are explicitly integrated in the Class 3 English textbook aligned to NEP/NCF.

B) Inclusion and knowledge of India are woven in

C) No cross-cutting themes

D) Technology only

Answer: B) Inclusion and knowledge of India are woven in

From the provided lessons: 10 MCQs each

107 — Unit 3 “Good Food” and Chapter 7 “The Big Laddoo” (10)

21. The Unit 3 picture-reading sequence shows the journey from wheat to chapatti, including which step?

B) Grinding wheat into flour

C) Boiling rice

D) Tapping rubber

Answer: B) Grinding wheat into flour

22. In “The Big Laddoo,” the repeated structure “If all the … were one …” primarily plays with which concept?

B) Size and imagination

C) Temperature

D) Speed

Answer: B) Size and imagination

23. The poem’s image of throwing a big laddoo into the big sea results in a:

B) Silent drop

C) Frozen sea

D) Vanishing laddoo without sound

Answer: A) Big splash

24. A comprehension prompt connects sensory description by asking for words that tell us about a laddoo’s qualities (e.g., shape, texture), fostering which skill?

B) Descriptive vocabulary use

C) Algebraic thinking

D) Abstract logic puzzles

Answer: B) Descriptive vocabulary use

25. The “float or sink” exploration suggests testing objects like paper, leaf, stone, pencil; this best integrates English with:

B) Environmental Studies inquiry

C) Algebra practice

D) Geography mapping

Answer: B) Environmental Studies inquiry

26. The “Let us learn” passage explains khichdi as typically cooked with:

B) Rice and lentils together

C) Only vegetables

D) Only spices

Answer: B) Rice and lentils together

27. The festival most directly associated with khichdi in the text is the Harvest festival known by names such as:

B) Sankranti, Pongal, Bihu, Lohri

C) Eid and Christmas

D) Navratri only

Answer: B) Sankranti, Pongal, Bihu, Lohri

28. A cross-India mapping connects khichdi variants like Bisi bele bhat (Karnataka) and Kichuri (West Bengal), which mainly reinforces:

B) Knowledge of India and multilingual awareness

C) Meteorology

D) Data handling

Answer: B) Knowledge of India and multilingual awareness

29. The writing task asks framing sentences using words like “clock,” “blue,” and “blanket,” which targets:

B) Sentence construction with given prompts

C) Essay organization

D) Translation drills

Answer: B) Sentence construction with given prompts

30. Matching animals like “drake” and “mare” practices:

B) Specific vocabulary relating to animal names and genders

C) Only spelling

D) Only phonetics

Answer: B) Specific vocabulary relating to animal names and genders

108 — “Thank God” and “Aachoo!” selections (10)

31. In the Jataka tale, the farmer chose grapes instead of watermelons to gift the king because grapes are:

B) Light

C) Cheap

D) Rare

Answer: B) Light

32. The king playfully did what with the gifted grapes?

B) Threw them at the farmer

C) Sold them

D) Cooked them

Answer: B) Threw them at the farmer

33. The farmer’s “Thank God” remark implies recognition that if he had brought watermelons, the outcome would be:

B) Heavier and potentially harmful

C) Cheaper

D) Colder

Answer: B) Heavier and potentially harmful

34. The antonym activity pairs “heavy–light,” “soft–hard,” which pedagogy does this best illustrate?

B) Concept learning via contrasts

C) Dictation-only

D) Translation-only

Answer: B) Concept learning via contrasts

35. The “is/are” exercise is designed to reinforce agreement using examples like “These mangoes ___ sweet,” promoting attention to:

B) Subject–verb agreement with number

C) Voice

D) Mood

Answer: B) Subject–verb agreement with number

36. In “Aachoo!,” the elephant requests a handkerchief but ends up asking for:

B) A sheet

C) Tissue paper

D) A scarf

Answer: B) A sheet

37. The speaking prompt about visiting the Big Elephant focuses on choosing:

B) Appropriate food items to bring

C) Furniture pieces

D) Musical instruments

Answer: B) Appropriate food items to bring

38. The “Chandu’s Fruit Salad” slips require learners to:

B) Sequence procedural steps correctly

C) Memorize a poem

D) Translate to L1

Answer: B) Sequence procedural steps correctly

39. The fruit word-search includes entries like “MANGO,” “PAPAYA,” “GRAPES,” which supports:

B) Thematic vocabulary retrieval

C) Only phoneme segmentation

D) Only rhyme detection

Answer: B) Thematic vocabulary retrieval

40. The tale features which sight words prominently as listed?

B) Grow, kept, front

C) Should, would, could

D) Many, much, more

Answer: B) Grow, kept, front

109 — Chapter 9 “Madhu’s Wish” (10)

41. Madhu shares food under a banyan tree with an old man, who then grants a wish from:

B) The tree

C) The palace

D) A cave

Answer: B) The tree

42. Madhu first asks for:

B) Fruits

C) Laddoos

D) Savouries

Answer: C) Laddoos

43. After fruits like grapes, mangoes, apples, bananas, and more, Madhu asks for:

B) Savouries like samosas and kachori

C) Milk only

D) Ice cream

Answer: B) Savouries like samosas and kachori

44. The turning point occurs when Madhu gets:

B) Hiccups and needs water

C) Angry at the tree

D) Lost in the forest

Answer: B) Hiccups and needs water

45. The tree refuses to provide water initially because Madhu said:

B) “Only savouries”

C) “Nothing else, only food”

D) “Only sweets”

Answer: C) “Nothing else, only food”

46. Madhu finally learns that no drink replaces:

B) Juice

C) Water

D) Sharbat

Answer: C) Water

47. An adjectives activity classifies people as kind, greedy, or generous based on sentences, emphasizing understanding of:

B) Qualities/properties

C) Passive voice

D) Reported speech

Answer: B) Qualities/properties

48. The conjunctions lesson demonstrates combining ideas using which connectors prominently?

B) And, but

C) So, yet

D) For, since

Answer: B) And, but

49. The listening prompts ask learners to tell what happened next after key moments, supporting which skill?

B) Predictive and sequential comprehension

C) Dictation accuracy

D) Grammar parsing

Answer: B) Predictive and sequential comprehension

50. A craft activity creating a table mat with fruits/vegetables integrates language with:

B) Art-craft and procedural writing

C) Abstract algebra

D) Map skills

Answer: B) Art-craft and procedural writing

110 — Chapter 10 “Night” and Unit 4 Picture Reading (10)

51. The poem “Night” depicts the Sun “sinking behind a distant hill,” leading to the world becoming:

B) Dark and still

C) Noisy and bright

D) Rainy and windy

Answer: B) Dark and still

52. The morning lines present the child who:

B) Wakes as the Sun peeps and shines down

C) Walks at night

D) Dreams of stars in daytime

Answer: B) Wakes as the Sun peeps and shines down

53. A think prompt asks which among sunflower, toys, plants, table, children “needs the Sun,” most directly highlighting:

B) Toy charging

C) Metal heating

D) Wood polishing

Answer: A) Plant dependence on sunlight

54. The “I Spy” classroom game embedded in the unit primarily develops:

B) Observation and listening with descriptive clues

C) Silent reading

D) Dictionary use

Answer: B) Observation and listening with descriptive clues

55. The phonics focus features blends “sp, st, sk” linked to sky words, followed by selecting words found in the sky, reinforcing:

B) Phonics in context with semantic filtering

C) Grammar case marking

D) Tense changes

Answer: B) Phonics in context with semantic filtering

56. A vocabulary activity asks to add “Sun” to words like “rise/set/day/light,” building:

B) Passive voice

C) Conditional forms

D) Homophones

Answer: A) Collocations and compounds

57. The Unit 4 picture reading includes noticing two dustbins of different colours, prompting discussion of:

B) Waste segregation awareness

C) Animal habitats

D) Sports equipment

Answer: B) Waste segregation awareness

58. A prompt highlights a person with dark glasses and a white stick, leading to sensitization about:

B) Visual impairment and assistive tools

C) Police uniforms

D) Sports gear

Answer: B) Visual impairment and assistive tools

59. The boys’ toy in the street scene is most likely identified as a:

B) Spinning top or kite contextually

C) Musical drum

D) Chessboard

Answer: B) Spinning top or kite contextually

60. Counting visible animals in the street picture cultivates:

B) Only arithmetic

C) Only grammar

D) Only drawing

Answer: A) Arithmetic and observation integrated with language

111 — Chapter 11 “Chanda Mama Counts the Stars” (10)

61. Chanda Mama repeatedly fails to finish counting stars primarily because:

B) He forgets after falling asleep and night ends

C) The Sun stops him

D) The stars move away

Answer: B) He forgets after falling asleep and night ends

62. The Sun reassures Chanda Mama by saying the number of stars equals the number of:

B) Lovely children

C) Seas

D) Mountains

Answer: B) Lovely children

63. A language focus contrasts “here” versus “there” to indicate:

B) Proximity and distance from the speaker

C) Ownership

D) Quantity

Answer: B) Proximity and distance from the speaker

64. A listening table asks learners to sort items into “can be counted easily” versus “too many,” which supports:

B) Conceptual understanding of countability in real life

C) Only spelling

D) Only rhymes

Answer: B) Conceptual understanding of countability in real life

65. A dialogue completion task about a full moon night helps develop:

B) Functional conversation and vocabulary in context

C) Passive constructions

D) Complex clauses

Answer: B) Functional conversation and vocabulary in context

66. The craft “Wind Chimes” with moon and star shapes integrates:

B) Art-craft and procedural literacy

C) Advanced math

D) Field experiments

Answer: B) Art-craft and procedural literacy

67. The poem’s reference to the Moon’s changing appearance implies learning about:

B) Phases or varying appearances across nights

C) Weather only

D) Oceans

Answer: B) Phases or varying appearances across nights

68. The fill-ins with “here/there” include examples like “The students are playing kabaddi ___,” encouraging attention to:

B) Deictic reference tied to location

C) Tense shifts

D) Article choice

Answer: B) Deictic reference tied to location

69. The prompt asking what is visible in the night sky cultivates:

B) Oral description and thematic vocabulary

C) Calculation

D) Dictation-only

Answer: B) Oral description and thematic vocabulary

70. The story’s resolution makes Chanda Mama smile by linking children and stars, which most directly nurtures:

B) Affective engagement and metaphorical thinking

C) Exact counting skills

D) Map reading

Answer: B) Affective engagement and metaphorical thinking

112 — Chapter 12 “Chandrayaan” (10)

71. Rani learns about the Moon landing when Pratik exclaims, “Look, India is on the Moon!” while pointing to:

B) The TV

C) A newspaper

D) A school notice

Answer: B) The TV

72. At Vivaan’s home, Nandini Aunty is introduced as a:

B) Scientist

C) Teacher

D) Reporter

Answer: B) Scientist

73. The vehicle used to reach the Moon, correctly identified by Pratik, is a:

B) Rocket

C) Glider

D) Balloon

Answer: B) Rocket

74. The meaning of “Chandrayaan” is explained as:

B) Moon vehicle

C) Night bird

D) Space sky

Answer: B) Moon vehicle

75. The text states India became the first country to land on the far side of the Moon on:

B) 26 January, 2023

C) 15 August, 2023

D) 2 October, 2023

Answer: A) 23 August, 2023

76. A “Let us learn” section revisits articles “a/an” focusing on:

B) Sound-based choice with familiar nouns

C) Only spelling

D) Translation

Answer: B) Sound-based choice with familiar nouns

77. The word-building task uses blends like “sk, sw, sp, st” to form words in sentences such as “There are ___ings in the park,” emphasizing:

B) Consonant blends in context

C) Syllable stress

D) Punctuation

Answer: B) Consonant blends in context

78. The days-of-the-week activity links positions (first, second, etc.) to names, introducing:

B) Ordinal numbers via routine knowledge

C) Fractions

D) Angles

Answer: B) Ordinal numbers via routine knowledge

79. A suggested class activity asks groups to collect and paste clippings about the Chandrayaan-3 mission, which primarily builds:

B) Research and presentation skills

C) Dictation

D) Rhyme detection

Answer: B) Research and presentation skills

80. The “Let us explore” invites learners to share a Moon song or story in the mother tongue, embedding:

B) Multilingual and cultural knowledge sharing

C) Only memorization

D) Only translations from English

Answer: B) Multilingual and cultural knowledge sharing

Additional HOTS/application across lessons (10)

81. From “The Big Laddoo,” discussing which round objects can be eaten versus not eaten primarily fosters:

B) Concept classification with real-world judgment

C) Rhyme scheme analysis

D) Phoneme blending

Answer: B) Concept classification with real-world judgment

82. From the Jataka tale, asking learners to propose a kinder response the king might have shown and role-play it promotes:

B) Perspective-taking and moral reasoning

C) Only grammar

D) Only drawing

Answer: B) Perspective-taking and moral reasoning

83. From “Madhu’s Wish,” designing a poster “Water First!” after the hiccups episode targets:

B) Health literacy and persuasive writing

C) Rhyming couplets

D) Past tense only

Answer: B) Health literacy and persuasive writing

84. From “Night,” having learners keep a simple dawn/dusk observation journal for colours in the sky integrates English with:

B) Nature journaling and descriptive language

C) Financial literacy

D) Coding

Answer: B) Nature journaling and descriptive language

85. From “Chanda Mama Counts the Stars,” guiding students to sort items into “countable now” vs “too many” then justify orally nurtures:

B) Reasoned explanation with classification

C) Rote memory

D) Dictation

Answer: B) Reasoned explanation with classification

86. From “Chandrayaan,” asking learners to write three questions for a scientist and then peer-answer them develops:

B) Inquiry skills and Q&A practice

C) Only spelling

D) Only recitation

Answer: B) Inquiry skills and Q&A practice

87. From Unit 3 food theme, planning a class “healthy snack day” menu using nouns and adjectives (e.g., fresh mango, warm khichdi) connects language to:

B) Nutrition awareness and descriptive writing

C) Map work

D) Algebra

Answer: B) Nutrition awareness and descriptive writing

88. From “Thank God,” an opposites collage where learners pair images (e.g., heavy-light, soft-hard) and label them builds:

B) Visual-semantic mapping of antonyms

C) Syntax practice only

D) Rhyme awareness

Answer: B) Visual-semantic mapping of antonyms

89. From “Talking Toys” style activities in earlier unit, revisiting pluralization by creating a “toy shop” label set (box/boxes; bus/buses) targets:

B) Plural formation rules -s/-es

C) Passive voice