Child
Development & Pedagogy (5)
1.
Which strategy
best exemplifies Vygotsky’s Zone of Proximal Development in a primary
classroom?
A) Giving only independent worksheets
B) Whole-class lecturing throughout
C) Testing before teaching
D) Scaffolding tasks slightly above current level with guided support
2.
A child returns
extra change to a shopkeeper because “it’s the rule and fair.” This reflects
which Kohlberg level?
A) Pre-conventional (obedience/punishment)
B) Conventional (law-and-order/social approval)
C) Post-conventional (universal principles)
D) Amoral stage
3.
For
activity-based learning with ongoing assessment, which is most suitable?
A) End-term summative tests only
B) Surprise quizzes every day
C) Observation checklists with immediate feedback during tasks
D) Peer grading without criteria
4.
An inclusive
classroom for a learner with low vision should prioritize:
A) Removing visual materials altogether
B) Small handwriting on the board
C) Large-font materials, high-contrast visuals, and peer assistance
D) Relying solely on oral teaching
5.
In Piaget’s
terms, lower primary learners benefit most from:
A) Abstract symbol manipulation
B) Debates on hypothetical ethics
C) Hands-on tasks like classification and seriation with real objects
D) Memorizing definitions
Mathematics
Pedagogy (10)
6.
A concept
attainment lesson on “even numbers” should begin with:
A) Definitions first, examples later
B) Positive and negative examples leading to student-inferred rule
C) Timed tests only
D) Mental math drills only
7.
Most effective
error analysis for regrouping in subtraction:
A) Mark wrong answers only
B) Have learners verbalize each step and locate the faulty move
C) Give the correct algorithm sheet
D) Skip and move to new topic
8.
A strong
problem-solving routine for primary learners is:
A) Guess and check only
B) Draw/act out, plan, solve, and reflect
C) Timed speed tests
D) Memorize all word problems
9.
To cultivate
reasoning in math talk, the best prompt is:
A) “Just memorize the steps.”
B) “What is the answer?”
C) “How do you know? Can you show it another way?”
D) “Copy your friend’s method.”
10.
A quick
formative check of number sense:
A) Monthly unit tests
B) One-minute exit tickets asking for an estimate with justification
C) Homework marks only
D) Surprise oral drill
11.
Differentiation
in word problems with mixed abilities works best with:
A) Same sheet for all
B) Tiered tasks (same big idea, varied complexity)
C) Only competition-based tasks
D) Punitive grading
12.
For conceptual
understanding of fractions:
A) Start with abstract symbols
B) Use paper folding/fraction circles before notation
C) Timed fraction tests
D) Only digital apps
13.
Story-based
integration that builds arithmetic:
A) Unrelated riddles
B) Money problems on cost and change grounded in a narrative
C) Prime factorization drills only
D) Angle construction only
14.
Building
mathematical language in class is best supported by:
A) No discussion rules
B) Sentence frames and a visible math word wall
C) Silent practice only
D) Teacher monologue
15.
Assessing
geometry vocabulary effectively:
A) Dictation of definitions
B) Photo-walk to identify shapes and describe properties
C) Copying from textbook
D) Drawing random lines
NEP 2020
Related (5)
16.
NEP 2020
emphasizes, in the Preparatory Stage (Grades 3–5):
A) Purely lecture-based instruction
B) Early specialization
C) Activity-based, discovery learning for foundational literacy and numeracy
D) Only standardized testing
17.
To promote
multilingualism and local context, a classroom should:
A) Avoid local culture
B) Integrate local stories, examples, and languages appropriately
C) Use only one language strictly
D) Focus solely on global examples
18.
Assessment
reforms in NEP 2020 prioritize:
A) Only terminal exams
B) Grades without feedback
C) Competency-based, formative assessments embedded in teaching
D) Surprise tests as main tool
19.
Holistic
development per NEP 2020 includes:
A) Only academic drill
B) Integration of physical, socio-emotional, cognitive, and arts
C) Only sports
D) Only arts
20.
NEP 2020
encourages teachers to:
A) Avoid digital platforms
B) Use school-based assessments and curated digital resources
C) Stop using libraries
D) Focus only on marks
From Lesson:
Together We Can (10)
21.
The poem’s
central message is that:
A) Solo effort ensures success
B) Teamwork and helping each other bring shared joy and success
C) Winning matters above all
D) Rules make teams rigid
22.
“With each hand
joined, the goal is near” implies:
A) Competition is harmful
B) Collaboration reduces difficulty and moves goals closer
C) Success is luck
D) Avoid group work
23.
The correct
collective noun is:
A) A swarm of sheep
B) A bouquet of wolves
C) A herd of sheep
D) A bunch of trees
24.
The map
activity primarily strengthens:
A) Verb tenses
B) Spatial prepositions like between, near, in front of
C) Punctuation
D) Rhyme schemes
25.
A recommended
speaking strategy is:
A) Unstructured shouting
B) Modeled dialogues and pair work with turn-taking
C) Teacher-only monologue
D) Silent reading
26.
The craft
activity develops:
A) Only theory
B) Hands-on, stepwise creation (fold-draw-cut-unfold-color)
C) Timed memorization
D) Oral drill
27.
The poem frames
losing in a team as:
A) Shameful
B) A shared experience bonded by trust and support
C) Disciplinary issue
D) Meaningless
28.
A science note
in the unit highlights:
A) Ants do not cooperate
B) Honeybees use waggle dance to share resource locations
C) Wolves farm flowers
D) Fish use light signals
29.
Speaking tasks
invite learners to:
A) Avoid personal sharing
B) Exchange preferences about foods and festivals
C) Only write essays
D) Draw maps
30.
Writing prompts
encourage:
A) Only present tense
B) Describing pictures and predicting next steps using “will”
C) Only past tense
D) Only commands
From Lesson:
The Tinkling Bells (10)
31.
Why was the boy
initially upset?
A) He lost the money that was given to him
B) He broke the bells
C) He misplaced his bag
D) He failed a test
32.
The mother’s
response to extra change teaches:
A) Cleverness
B) Honesty and returning what doesn’t belong to us
C) Speed
D) Secrecy
33.
The fruit
seller’s reaction to the boy’s honesty:
A) Anger
B) Praise
C) Indifference
D) Suspicion
34.
The story’s
resolution shows:
A) The boy keeps the money
B) The pet kid gets the bells
C) The shop closes forever
D) The mother scolds him
35.
Values hidden
in the word grid include:
A) Laziness
B) HONEST and TRUTH
C) Cheating
D) Greed
36.
Correct use of
comparison:
A) “More tall than”
B) “-er than” for two; “-est” for group
C) “Most taller than”
D) “-est than” for two
37.
A suitable
listening follow-up is to:
A) Skip sequence
B) Order events of the story logically
C) Count letters
D) Translate into code
38.
Speaking
scenarios focus on:
A) Peer pressure compliance
B) Ethical choices (e.g., academic honesty, sharing)
C) Test-taking tricks
D) Punishments
39.
A language note
clarifies that “kid” can mean:
A) Only a child
B) Only a baby goat
C) Both a child and a baby goat
D) Neither
40.
A math-linked
detail in the market scene is:
A) Unknown prices
B) Unit prices and making change from a larger note
C) Only weights
D) Distance-time graphs
From Lesson: Be
Smart, Be Safe (10)
41.
Before crossing
a road, one should:
A) Run fast
B) Look right, left, and right, and use the zebra crossing
C) Close eyes and pray
D) Text a friend
42.
A pedestrian
should cross when:
A) Vehicle light is green
B) Pedestrian signal is green, walking calmly
C) Any light blinks
D) No signal exists
43.
To stay safe
while walking:
A) Walk on the road edge
B) Use footpaths away from moving vehicles
C) Walk in the middle lane
D) Follow others blindly
44.
For children
near roads, it is advisable to:
A) Walk alone
B) Run in groups
C) Hold an adult’s hand while crossing
D) Use headphones
45.
In the evening,
visibility is improved by:
A) Dark clothes
B) Reflective stickers on clothes/bags
C) Closing eyes
D) Whispering
46.
Headphones or
mobiles near traffic:
A) Improve awareness
B) Cause distraction and reduce attention to traffic sounds
C) Are harmless
D) Are mandatory
47.
“It is safe to
run while crossing.” This is:
A) Sometimes true
B) Often true
C) False
D) Always true
48.
Understanding
road signs helps children to:
A) Drive vehicles
B) Identify hazards/rules like “Drive slow,” “No left turn,” “School ahead”
C) Ignore rules
D) Park anywhere
49.
Classifying
behaviors: Which pair is correct?
A) Looking both ways—Safe; Playing on the road—Unsafe
B) Running—Safe; Footpath—Unsafe
C) Loud music—Safe; Zebra crossing—Unsafe
D) Phone use—Safe; Helmet—Unsafe
50.
Countability
focus in road context:
A) Buses/Cars countable; Traffic/Pollution uncountable
B) Traffic countable; Cars uncountable
C) Pollution countable; Buses uncountable
D) All uncountable
From Lesson:
One Thing at a Time (10)
51.
The poem’s core
advice is to:
A) Multitask always
B) Focus on one task and do it well
C) Avoid play
D) Skip rest
52.
“Things done by
halves are never done right” means:
A) Half work is efficient
B) Incomplete effort leads to poor results
C) Always divide tasks
D) Play is wasteful
53.
Matching
meanings:
A) “Might” = short time
B) “Might” = strength/power; “moments” = short periods
C) “Moments” = power
D) Neither
54.
A teacher note
suggests focus helps by:
A) Increasing errors
B) Improving speed and reducing mistakes
C) Removing creativity
D) Extending homework
55.
Listening
practice emphasizes:
A) Punctuation only
B) Discriminating target sounds (e.g., “l”) in words
C) Counting syllables only
D) Definition recall
56.
Speaking frames
promote:
A) Past perfect only
B) Present continuous (is/are + -ing) for picture description
C) Imperatives only
D) Future perfect
57.
Routine writing
includes:
A) Only essays
B) Listing daily activities and tagging work/play
C) Only diagrams
D) Only dialogues
58.
Riddle “Thirty white
horses on a red hill” refers to:
A) Rocks
B) Teeth
C) Chalks
D) Apples
59.
The tall lady
with red nose who shortens is a:
A) Lamp
B) Candle
C) Flower
D) Pencil
60.
Time management
message:
A) Always play
B) Work during work time, play during play time
C) Only study
D) Only rest
From Lesson:
The Old Stag (10)
61.
The old stag
was admired for:
A) Speed
B) Kindness and warm greetings
C) Strength alone
D) Silence
62.
When ill, the
stag chose to:
A) Wander widely
B) Stay on the hillock, eat tender grass, and rest
C) Stop eating
D) Leave the forest
63.
The visiting
animals’ unintended harm was:
A) Bringing noise
B) Eating the stag’s tender grass supply
C) Blocking paths
D) Drinking all water
64.
The animals
corrected themselves by:
A) Ignoring the stag
B) Finding food elsewhere and bringing leaves for him
C) Moving the stag
D) Building a fence
65.
Recovery was
aided when:
A) Weather stayed dry
B) It rained and grass grew back
C) Hunters helped
D) The stag migrated
66.
The moral best
captured is:
A) Take more than needed
B) Use nature’s resources wisely; there is enough for all
C) Avoid sharing
D) Consume quickly
67.
Word meaning
match:
A) Lush = dry
B) Lush = green/dense; Speedy recovery = quick healing
C) Tender grass = old grass
D) Recovery = decline
68.
Adverbs of
manner describe:
A) When only
B) How an action is done (e.g., warmly, quickly)
C) Where only
D) What object
69.
The “Monkeys
Fast” comic illustrates:
A) Perfect discipline
B) Weak self-control when rules are bent “just one bite”
C) Resource abundance
D) Silence
70.
A sharing
discussion (jalebis) should emphasize:
A) First-come-first-serve only
B) Fair sharing so everyone gets enough
C) Hiding food
D) Competition
From Lesson:
Braille (10)
71.
Louis Braille
lost sight due to:
A) Birth condition
B) Childhood eye injury that led to total blindness
C) Fever alone
D) Old age
72.
Barbier’s
“Night Writing” failed mainly because:
A) No alphabet existed
B) It was too difficult to use
C) It was invisible
D) It was noisy
73.
Braille’s key
contribution was:
A) Printing ink
B) Simplifying night writing into a tactile dot system
C) New paper
D) Special glasses
74.
Each English
letter in Braille is represented by:
A) Colors
B) A pattern of raised dots (tactile symbol)
C) Sounds only
D) Pictures
75.
Braille books
are thicker because:
A) Paper is wet
B) Letters require more spacing; cannot be too close
C) Ink expands
D) Binding is loose
76.
Who can learn
Braille?
A) Only blind learners
B) Sighted learners can learn and write in Braille too
C) Only teachers
D) Only doctors
77.
A suggested
speaking activity is to:
A) Describe by looking only
B) Identify objects by touch with eyes closed
C) Copy from board
D) Whisper alphabet
78.
A listening
articulation practice focuses on:
A) Vowel only
B) Consonant clusters like “spl” (e.g., splash, splendid)
C) Only stress marks
D) Only pauses
79.
Grammar conversion
target is:
A) Past perfect
B) Present continuous to past continuous (was/were + -ing)
C) Future perfect
D) Passive voice only
80.
A safety
writing task encourages listing:
A) Random activities
B) Precautions to protect eyes from harm
C) Party plans
D) Weather reports
Additional
Higher-Order/Applied MCQs (10)
81.
A strong
integrity activity after a values story should culminate in:
A) Fact recall only
B) Role-play dilemmas and reflect on consequences
C) Copying rules
D) Timed spelling
82.
After a
road-safety lesson, a HOTS task is to:
A) Memorize signs only
B) Audit a street scene for risks and propose redesigns
C) Draw a car
D) Count traffic lights
83.
From a
focus/time-management poem, a metacognitive routine is:
A) Random switching
B) Plan one goal, focus deeply, self-review outcome
C) Work without breaks
D) Skip reflection
84.
From an
environmental ethics tale, a class “commons” routine could be:
A) First-come-first-serve
B) Shared norms to allocate/use common resources fairly
C) Winner takes all
D) Ignore needs
85.
To support UDL,
an access plan might combine:
A) Only small print
B) Tactile graphics with audio supports
C) Low contrast visuals
D) Fast lectures
86.
A
transdisciplinary activity blending story and math:
A) Random rhyme
B) Money arithmetic (cost/change) within narrative context
C) Angle chase without context
D) Copy tables only
87.
Safety
vocabulary consolidation works well through:
A) Unlabeled drawings
B) Creating a labeled neighborhood safety map
C) Dictation only
D) Crossword only
88.
Comparative
adjectives can be grounded with:
A) Imaginary numbers
B) Playground race data for “faster/fastest” sentences
C) Only definitions
D) Silent reading
89.
Practice with
adverbs of manner is strongest when learners:
A) Avoid writing
B) Revise diary entries by adding precise adverbs
C) Only underline verbs
D) Memorize lists
90.
Past continuous
can be applied meaningfully by:
A) Copying rules only
B) Writing eyewitness narratives using was/were + -ing
C) Counting words
D) Rewriting into commands
Child
Development & Pedagogy (5)
1.
In Piaget’s
view, primary learners most benefit from which classroom approach?
A) Lecture-only explanations
B) Abstract symbolic proofs
C) Timed recall drills
D) Hands-on exploration with concrete materials
2.
Vygotsky’s ZPD
is best enacted when a teacher:
A) Assigns only independent work
B) Provides scaffolds during challenging tasks, then gradually withdraws
support
C) Grades without feedback
D) Uses end-term tests only
3.
At Kohlberg’s
conventional level, a child most likely:
A) Obeys to avoid punishment
B) Pursues self-interest only
C) Follows rules to gain approval and maintain social order
D) Operates from universal ethical principles
4.
In an inclusive
classroom for low-vision learners, the most appropriate first step is to:
A) Seat at the back for independence
B) Remove visuals entirely
C) Offer large-print, high-contrast materials and preferential seating with
peer support
D) Exempt from reading tasks
5.
During
activity-based writing, using error analysis primarily develops:
A) Rote habits
B) Competition
C) Formative assessment and metacognition
D) Only summative outcomes
Mathematics
Pedagogy (10)
6.
The most effective
way to build place value understanding in Grade 4 is:
A) Oral drilling 1–1000
B) Base-ten blocks with regrouping tasks
C) Copying tables
D) Speed contests
7.
A sound
problem-solving routine for word problems is:
A) Read, guess, answer
B) Identify known/unknown, plan, compute, check
C) Memorize formulas only
D) Copy peer methods
8.
To introduce
fractions conceptually, begin with:
A) Cross-multiplication rules
B) Area models and sharing tasks
C) Improper fractions first
D) Symbol-only practice
9.
An
activity-based approach to perimeter is:
A) Definition copying
B) Formula chants
C) Measuring real objects’ edges in class
D) Timed drills only
10.
Diagnostic
assessment in math is used to:
A) Assign final grades
B) Rank students
C) Identify misconceptions before instruction
D) Enforce discipline
11.
The error “3/4
+ 2/4 = 5/8” indicates:
A) Correct work
B) Subtraction confusion
C) Adding denominators incorrectly
D) Place value error
12.
For symmetry in
a constructivist class, the teacher should:
A) Start with definitions only
B) Use folding and mirror investigations
C) Avoid group work
D) Keep to textbook diagrams
13.
A suitable
formative strategy is:
A) Weekly surprise tests
B) Exit tickets reflecting on the strategy used
C) Grade inflation
D) End-term exam only
14.
Differentiation
for mixed abilities is best achieved by:
A) One worksheet for all
B) Tiered tasks on the same concept with manipulatives/challenges
C) Idle time for fast-finishers
D) Extra homework only
15.
To develop
“greater than/less than” sense, use:
A) Only oral drills
B) Number lines and real comparisons
C) Symbol copying only
D) Timed tests
NEP 2020 (5)
16.
Foundational
Literacy and Numeracy is targeted by the end of:
A) Grade 1
B) Grade 2
C) Grade 3
D) Grade 5
17.
NEP 2020
supports multilingualism by:
A) Prohibiting mother tongue
B) Encouraging home/local language as medium especially till Grade 5
C) English-only textbooks
D) Restricting bilingual resources
18.
Assessment
reforms emphasize:
A) High-stakes rote recall only
B) Competency-based, formative, holistic progress
C) Annual boards only
D) No teacher feedback
19.
The school
structure envisioned is:
A) 10+2 retained
B) 5+3+3+4 stages (Foundational, Preparatory, Middle, Secondary)
C) Two-stage model
D) Pre-primary and secondary only
20.
For
experiential learning in early grades, NEP 2020 promotes:
A) Worksheets only
B) Activity-based, discovery learning across subjects
C) Lecture-heavy lessons
D) Elimination of projects
From Lesson:
Fit Body, Fit Mind, Fit Nation (10)
21.
The poem
showcases children engaged in:
A) Only reading
B) Sports and arts like hockey, skating, music, cycling, singing
C) Exams
D) Silent sitting
22.
“Graceful girl
Geeta … learns daily from her mistakes” highlights:
A) Shame in errors
B) Growth mindset through practice
C) Avoiding practice
D) Only talent
23.
“Swift girl
Shabana … fastest pace” most nearly relates to:
A) Decoding
B) Speed and performance in cycling
C) Cooking
D) Gardening
24.
The word
“proudly” functions as a(n):
A) Noun
B) Adjective
C) Adverb
D) Preposition
25.
An activity
suggested to build healthy habits is:
A) Overnight fasting
B) Preparing a dish without fire
C) Only memorizing words
D) Test drills
26.
A vocabulary
task asks learners to match:
A) Tenses
B) Descriptive words to suitable nouns (e.g., blue sky)
C) Passive voice
D) Conjunctions
27.
A phonological
activity asks learners to:
A) Count letters
B) Find rhyming words like hockey/rocky, skates/gates
C) Translate the poem
D) Only copy lines
28.
The “double
letters” writing task develops:
A) Only drawing
B) Orthographic awareness with words like “village”
C) Dictation only
D) Silent reading
29.
A values
extension invites learners to explore:
A) Only diets
B) Paralympic Games
C) Board games only
D) Fashion shows
30.
A
meaning-matching item pairs “rocky” with:
A) Smooth
B) Uneven/difficult surface
C) Wet
D) Shiny
From Lesson:
The Lagori Champions (10)
31.
Lagori is also
known as:
A) Kho-kho
B) Kabaddi
C) Satoliya
D) Gilli-danda
32.
The basic setup
involves:
A) A net
B) Seven flat stones stacked in the centre
C) Cards
D) Two ropes
33.
The two teams
in the story are:
A) Red vs Blue
B) Sundarpur Tigers vs Green Warriors
C) City vs Town
D) Lions vs Bears
34.
The opening
shot that scattered the stones was taken by:
A) Ravi
B) Deepa
C) Imran
D) Nidhi
35.
The team must
rebuild the stack while:
A) Dancing
B) Avoiding being hit by the opponent’s ball
C) Running out of bounds
D) Sitting
36.
The boundary
rule requires players to:
A) Cross it to score
B) Stay within the marked field
C) Sit at the line
D) Erase it
37.
The winning
moment occurred when:
A) Stones fell again
B) Prakash set the seventh stone before the final whistle
C) Whistle wasn’t blown
D) Both teams left
38.
A language
activity focuses on synonyms; “huge” aligns with:
A) Tiny
B) Big
C) Minute
D) Narrow
39.
The listening
task asks learners to identify the word that:
A) Rhymes with sun
B) Does not fit the sports list
C) Starts with S only
D) Has three syllables
40.
A reflective
theme emphasized after the match is:
A) Cheating wins
B) Teamwork and appreciation for both teams
C) Only captains matter
D) Fans decide outcomes
From Lesson:
Hekko (10)
41.
“Hekko”
literally means:
A) Playful tiger
B) Challenging the tiger
C) Feeding the tiger
D) Hugging the tiger
42.
The two teams
are named:
A) Hills and Valleys
B) Aami (Man) and Aakho (Tiger)
C) Red and Blue
D) River and Forest
43.
Each team has:
A) 5 players
B) 7 players
C) 9 players
D) 11 players
44.
The Aami team
must:
A) Run outside the circle
B) Form a human chain inside the circle
C) Hide behind trees
D) Sit and clap
45.
Aakho players
entering the circle try to:
A) Sing
B) Push Aami players outside the circle
C) Draw lines
D) Remove stones
46.
A caught Aakho
player is released when they:
A) Laugh
B) Say “Joko” (surrender)
C) Cry
D) Jump
47.
A team scores a
point when:
A) Time pauses
B) An opponent is put out
C) Weather changes
D) Circle moves
48.
The game ends
when:
A) Snacks arrive
B) All Aakho are caught, or all Aami are pushed out, or time runs out
C) Umpire leaves
D) It rains
49.
A language
exercise contrasts homophones like:
A) Here/hair
B) There/their
C) Cup/cop
D) Quit/quite
50.
A past tense
focus highlights:
A) Adding -ing only
B) Regular -ed and irregular forms (e.g., came, saw)
C) Prefix-only change
D) Suffix -ly
From Lesson:
The Swing (10)
51.
The poet enjoys
swings because they are the:
A) Largest thing
B) Loudest thing
C) Pleasantest thing a child can do
D) Riskiest thing
52.
Sights viewed
from the swing include:
A) Oceans only
B) Rivers, trees, cattle, countryside
C) Deserts only
D) Spacecraft
53.
“Up in the air
so blue” most likely refers to:
A) Night sky
B) Day sky’s color
C) Ceiling paint
D) River water
54.
A grammar task
demonstrates sentence expansion like:
A) Deleting words
B) Stringing details to make longer, meaningful sentences
C) Only abbreviations
D) Removing verbs
55.
The word
“swing” in “I swing on a swing” shows:
A) Two adjectives
B) Verb and noun with different functions
C) Two prepositions
D) Two adverbs
56.
In verb/noun
identification, “dance” in “The dance begins” is a:
A) Verb
B) Noun
C) Adjective
D) Adverb
57.
In “My friends
fly kites,” “fly” is a:
A) Noun
B) Verb
C) Adjective
D) Conjunction
58.
Pronunciation
practice contrasts:
A) W and Y
B) W and V articulation practice
C) S and Z only
D) P and B
59.
A writing task
asks learners to:
A) Copy the poem
B) Describe enjoyable free-time activities
C) Translate to L1
D) Memorize rules
60.
The preposition
exercise uses words like:
A) If, unless
B) On, beside, between, above, in front of, behind, under
C) Because, although
D) Therefore, however
From Lesson:
Braille (10)
61.
Louis Braille
lost his vision due to:
A) Birth condition
B) Childhood eye injury followed by total blindness
C) Fever only
D) Old age
62.
“Night Writing”
was:
A) Ink code
B) Raised dots and dashes for soldiers, but too difficult
C) Morse telegraph
D) Light signals
63.
Louis Braille
simplified Night Writing into:
A) Pictures
B) A six-dot tactile system for letters
C) Colors
D) Sounds
64.
Braille books
are thicker because:
A) Heavy covers
B) Raised dots need more spacing; letters cannot be too close
C) Extra drawings
D) Glossy paper
65.
The statement
“a blind person taught the world to see” highlights:
A) Medical cure
B) Accessible literacy empowering all
C) Sunglasses use
D) Night vision
66.
Braille can be
learned by:
A) Blind learners only
B) Sighted learners as well
C) Adults only
D) Teachers only
67.
A tactile
classroom activity suggests:
A) Only typing
B) Forming letters with bindis or raised impressions
C) Silent reading
D) Spelling bee
68.
A speaking
activity encourages describing objects by:
A) Watching videos
B) Touch with eyes closed
C) Drawing only
D) Dictation
69.
A listening
drill practices the cluster:
A) Str
B) Spl (e.g., splash, splendid)
C) Thr
D) Spr
70.
A grammar task
converts present continuous to:
A) Future perfect
B) Past continuous (was/were + -ing)
C) Present perfect
D) Imperatives
From Lesson: A
Journey to the Magical Mountains (10)
71.
Minam travels
with her:
A) Friend
B) Grandfather, a former Sherpa
C) Teacher
D) Cousin
72.
She packs items
including:
A) Chips only
B) Rotis with achaar, two water bottles, apples
C) Burgers
D) Cakes
73.
At lunch, they:
A) Eat on a bus
B) Sit by a clear river, watch fish, and rest
C) Skip eating
D) Visit a shop
74.
Animals
important to mountain life mentioned include:
A) Cows only
B) Yaks for milk, wool, and loads
C) Camels only
D) Deer
75.
Minam’s first
snow experience involves:
A) Skiing
B) Making a small snowman and playing
C) Building a fort
D) Avoiding snow
76.
The tallest
mountain identified is:
A) K2
B) Kanchenjunga
C) Nanda Devi
D) Mount Everest
77.
On the way
back, they hear:
A) Drums
B) A Santoor played under a tree
C) A piano
D) A flute
78.
Mountain goats
are described as:
A) Poor climbers
B) Excellent climbers reaching hard places
C) Swimmers
D) Flyers
79.
The closing
message emphasizes:
A) Tourism only
B) Respecting and protecting mountains
C) Mining
D) Logging
80.
A vocabulary
link pairs “journey” with:
A) Destination only
B) A trip from one place to another
C) Sitting
D) Waiting
From Lesson:
Maheshwar (10)
81.
Maheshwar Fort
was built by:
A) Rani Lakshmibai
B) Queen Ahilya Bai of the Holkar family
C) Razia Sultan
D) Noor Jahan
82.
The fort stands
on a hill overlooking:
A) A desert
B) The town on one side and the Narmada River on the other
C) A lake only
D) A sea
83.
The fort is
known for:
A) Hanging gardens
B) Overhanging balconies and grand staircases
C) Glass façade
D) Suspension bridge
84.
Stones used in
the fort were brought from:
A) Punjab only
B) Gujarat and Rajasthan
C) Kerala and Assam
D) Odisha and Bihar
85.
A 13-feet
statue of Queen Ahilya Bai stands:
A) In a museum
B) In front of the palace as a guardian-like figure
C) On a boat
D) Under a cave
86.
The location of
Maheshwar is near:
A) Bhopal, 10 km
B) Indore, about 95 km
C) Gwalior, 300 km
D) Ujjain, 5 km
87.
A famed local
craft associated with Maheshwar is:
A) Zardozi
B) Maheshwari sarees with reversible borders
C) Phulkari only
D) Banarasi brocade only
88.
The sarees
traditionally blend:
A) Jute and linen
B) Cotton and silk
C) Rayon and nylon
D) Wool and acrylic
89.
A vocabulary
match links “majestic” with:
A) Ordinary
B) Royal and grand
C) Tiny
D) Plain
90.
A grammar
exercise revises articles, using:
A) Only “a”
B) A, an, and the in context (e.g., an elephant, the pear)
C) Only “the”
D) No articles
Additional
HOTS/Application (10)
91.
From teamwork
themes, the best way to resolve teammates’ conflict is to:
A) Ignore both
B) Facilitate dialogue, set shared goals, and roles
C) Replace both
D) Delay the task
92.
From honesty
stories, returning excess change primarily cultivates:
A) Cleverness
B) Integrity and empathy
C) Fear
D) Popularity
93.
From road
safety, headphones near traffic are discouraged because they:
A) Improve focus
B) Mask critical traffic sounds and attention
C) Are fashionable
D) Reduce speed
94.
From time-management
poetry, the recommended habit is:
A) Multitask constantly
B) Focus on one task to completion with quality
C) Skip breaks
D) Cram at night
95.
From
environmental tales, the sustainability pledge that fits is:
A) Take as much as possible
B) Use shared resources wisely so all benefit
C) First-come-first-served
D) Hoard
96.
From inclusive
literacy, a whole-class empathy activity is:
A) Hide tactile materials
B) Have everyone try writing/reading simple Braille patterns
C) Sighted-only tasks
D) Oral-only assessment
97.
From language
design principles, a text–visual balance chiefly helps:
A) Decoration
B) Comprehension for Grade 4 readers
C) Reducing content
D) Replacing reading
98.
From
traditional games, a transdisciplinary task could be:
A) Only chanting rules
B) Design a budget/score sheet for a local game using math
C) Coloring jerseys only
D) Watching videos only
99.
From mountains
narrative, a civic action extension is to:
A) Collect rocks
B) Draft a simple code to protect local nature (waste, water, wildlife)
C) Cut shrubs
D) Make loud noise
100.
From
values-based scenarios, an effective integrity assessment is:
A) Conduct-only checklist
B) Role-plays with reflection journals on choices and consequences
C) Memory quiz
D) Punishment logs